I Am Question
"And God said to Moses, I AM that I AM; and He said, You shall say this to the sons
of Israel, I AM has sent me to you." (Exodus 3:14). This is how it is translated
in the JP Green Interlinear Bible and the KJV very is similar. The Christian community
has determined that "I AM" is what God gave to Moses for His personal name, however,
God Almighty already had a personal name and He gives His name to Moses in the very
next verse, "And God said to Moses again, you shall say this to the sons of Israel,
Jehovah, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God
of Jacob, has sent me to you. This is My name forever and this is My title from generations
to generations." (Exodus 3:15). "Jehovah" being His name and "God" being His title.
When reading these two verses together, using the original and intended wording,
taken from the Hebrew "Masoretic Text", which was used in translating the King James
Version and most other Bible. Using an Interlinear Bible (containing both Hebrew
and Greek text), let us first look at that verse in the Old Testament translation
that originates "I Am" as a name, Exodus 3:14; In verse 13 Moses questioned God because
he was instructed to go back to Egypt to lead the Israelites to the promise land,
“What shall I say to the sons of Israel who sent me?” Both verses 15 and 16 presents
His name "Jehovah" then, just so Moses wouldn’t be confused, God repeated Himself,
"Go and gather the elders of Israel, and say to them, Jehovah, the God of your fathers
appeared to me (Moses) the God of Abraham,…” (Exodus 3:16). It is quite clear that
God used "Jehovah", not “I AM” as His personal name. In Exodus 6:3, God reveals an
important fact, "And I appeared to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as God Almighty, and
by My name Jehovah I never made Myself known to them." God's first words to Moses
"I exist because I exist" is now more logical, since He hadn't yet given them His
personal name, "Jehovah". Let us dig deeper into the Hebrew word “hayah” (Strong’s
#1961), the word man translated as “I am”. According to the Strong's Concordance,
the various meaning are these: “to exist, i.e. be or become, come to pass (always
enphat., and not a mere copula or auxiliary): -
Turning to the New Testament, The Jews asked Jesus who He makes Himself to be
(John 8:53). Jesus replied that; “Your father Abraham leaped for joy that he should
see My day, he saw, and rejoiced.” (John 8:56), and they questioned His statement
and Jesus responded with, "Jesus said to them, Truly, truly, I say to you, before
Abraham came into being, I Am." (John 8:58). The first word “I” #1473, in Strong’s
Greek Dictionary means I or me, the 2nd word “AM” in Strong’s is #1510 with a list
of meanings: I exist, am, have been, it is I or was. To translate Christ's answer
to their question more logically and directly, using the list for #1510 (since it
is a translator's choice) would have be, “I was" or "I have been” but the translators
chose “I Am”. It seems that the translators are making this choice from the list
of #1510, to force a connection of this New Testament verse to line up with the
Old Testament verse in Exodus 3:14 (keeping in mind that "I Am" was incorrectly translated,
according to the list for the Hebrew text). There are other places in the New Testament
where this combinations of Greek words are used, for example, the blind man that
Jesus healed: "Some said, It is he; and others, He is like him. That one said, I
am he." ("he" was added) (John 9:9). Another choice would be "it is I" from the
list, but more importantly, "he" was added, which was commonly done. There are several
other places where "I am" is used but never as a name, but a declaration. Sometimes
"he" is added, depending on the version your reading, (John 4:26, 8:24,28, 13:13,19,
18:5,6,8, Acts 13:25). If you understand Jehovah as being one God, and Jesus as the
only-
It should be quite obvious that, "I am that I am" is not a name but a self description
of His divine authority. However, "Lord" having been used in the KJV where "Jehovah"
should be presented, is an error in the translation and a serious misrepresentation
of the truth of God's word. This is, a regular common attitude by many translators
where "Jehovah" has been replaced by "Lord", "LORD" or "God" 6743 times in the KJV
and most all other common Bibles (more about this change in "God's Name Verses" within
www.joelzarska.com). Since Jehovah is the Father and Michael (later named Jesus)
is the only-
Names are used to distinguish whom one it talking about, not titles. The name Jesus is used many times, but Jehovah (or a Greek translation) is never represented in the New Testament except by "Lord" or "God", "Then Jesus said to him, Go, Satan! For it has been written: 'You shall worship the Lord thy God, and you shall serve Him only." (Matthew 4:10) and Jesus was quoting from Deuteronomy 6:13, "You shall fear Jehovah your God, and you shall serve Him, and you shall swear by His name." All three quotes from Jesus to Satan contained the name "Jehovah" in the Hebrew and not "Lord" as the common Bibles incorrectly represent them. Unfortunately, throughout the New Testament, when "Lord" is used, one must determine if "Lord" is referring to Jehovah God or Jesus the Son of Almighty God. Can we accurately make these determinations? The first question is answered; "I Am" is not a name for Jehovah or for the Son of God. I must ask, how can a committed Christian allow these many errors to continue to contaminate the truth of God's perfect word?