Bible Consistency
Is the Bible pure? This is not a simple answer, but, I will say and believe that
God's word is pure, and that is because I believe that God is perfect and that would
have to include the other member of the Godhead, God's only-
The common Bible translations do lack purity, indicated by some extreme changes
and some minor errors that show departure from the Hebrew and the New Testament text.
We must consider that a translator, in doing his work, must make many judgment calls
in choosing most every word, because each original Hebrew or Greek word may have
from one to fifty slightly different English meanings. One common example of a Hebrew
word and the various English words, according to the Strong's Concordance Dictionary
is: #2450 chakam, khaw-
There is one large translation change, which is almost universal with most English
Bibles, which is God's name, "Jehovah" (or "Yahweh"), which literally appears 6747
times in the Old Testament, and was drastically altered with a substitution of "Lord"
or "God", and "Jehovah" remaining about 4 times in a large majority of English Bibles;
both are titles that apply, but they are not His name or the correct translation
of Strong's #3068 Yehovah, the self-
One translation adjustment that most consider as Biblical is Exodus 3:14, "And God said to Moses, I Am That I Am, and He said, You shall say this to the sons of Israel, I Am has sent me to you." Strong's #1961 for "I Am" does not include "I" nor does it include "Am", however it does list about 15 other possibilities and the main one is "exist". The translators took some liberty with "hayah". To confirm that this is in error, the next verse literally says, "And God said to Moses again, You shall say this to the sons of Israel, Jehovah, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob has sent me to you, This is My name forever, and this is My title from generations to generations." (Exodus 3:15). Exodus 6:3 later explains why God used "exist" in first talking with Moses, "And I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob as God Almighty, and by My name Jehovah I never made Myself known to them." (Exodus 6:3), please confirm this for yourself, even the KJV uses God's personal name "Jehovah", therefore "I Am" can not be correct as a name.
This opens a major door, God personal name is "Jehovah", Strong's #3068 "Yehovah" and the various translators have replaced God's name 6743 times, in the Old Testament, not to mention the New Testament, where it has been totally eliminated. This can be confirmed by looking in the Strong's listing for "Lord" and "God" and counting all the #3068 and 3069 after each listing, Plus the four #3068 that are used correctly.
The next error is one from the time when God created man, which is used often to prove that God is triune, "And God said, Let Us make man on Our image, according to Our likeness; and let them rule over the fish of the sea, and over the birds of the heavens, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over all the creepers on the earth." (Genesis 1:26). #6213 is: "to do or make" and there is a long list of many other English words that are similar but none include "Us" or imply a plural use. The same with the list for #6754; "image" "resemblance" are similar meanings, but no "Our" is listed or implied. This is not what Christ inspired to the writers. To confirm this, "And God Jehovah formed the man out of dust from the ground, and blew into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul." (Genesis 2:7). This verse makes it clear that Jehovah was the only one who created man, because "Jehovah" blew the breath of life into the first man, Adam. This brings to the foreground, a very big translation adjustment that is harder to prove, with the exception of over one hundred verses stating "Jehovah God" as the Creator of the heavens and the earth and all that is in it, as it is stated in the second half of the Fourth Commandment, "For in six day Jehovah made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and all which are in them, and He rested on the seventh day; on account of this Jehovah blessed the sabbath day and sanctifies it." (Exodus 20:11). "Lord" was substituted for "Jehovah" in most every English translation. This incorrect adjustment that the translators made is because of John 1:3, "All things came into being through Him, and without Him not even one thing came into being that has come into being.". The word in question is "through" Strong's #1223, does include the word "through" and others but this would be inconsistent with the other one hundred verses stating that Jehovah was the Creator, and some in the New Testament, "The God who made the world and all thing in it, this One being Lord of heaven and of earth, does not dwell in handmade temples." (Acts 17:24), and, "Heaven is My throne and the earth a footstool of My feet; what house will you build Me, says the Lord (Jehovah); or what the place of My rest? Did not My hands make all these things?" (Acts 7:49,50 a quote from Isaiah 66:1.2), there are other in the New Testament, but not once is God's name used or a Greek translation. Since the Translators took "Jehovah" out of the Old Testament 6743 times, what would prevent them from taking His personal name out of the New Testament? I believe that His name was originally in the New Testament because Jesus and others quoted from the Old Testament scrolls that contained the name "Jehovah" and He spoke three verses to Satan, all containing "Jehovah". Would He misquote what He inspired to the Bible writers?
One short comment on the Sabbath day: The fourth Commandment makes it exceedingly clear and the Revelation 14:12 "here is the patience of the saints; here are the ones keeping the commands of God, and the faith of Jesus." The saints are the ones written in the Book of Life.
There are two translation adjustments in the Old Testament that are similar,
"For a Child is born; to us a Son is given; and the government is on His shoulders;
and His name is called, Wonderful, Counselor, the mighty God, the everlasting Father,
the prince of peace." (Isaiah 9:6). The words in question is Strong's #7121: qara
to call out to (address by name), call, cry, name, preach, publish, and other similar
meanings, but not "is called" instead "to call" or "to preach" is the meaning. The
other words before it, "His name", #8034: shem honor, authority, character, + base
[in-
This is the verse that has convinced me that man was directly trying to alter God's word to give us an incorrect understanding, "For there are three bearing witness in Heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one." (I John 5:7), continuing, "And there are three that bear witness in earth, The spirit, water and the blood; and the three are in agreement." (I John 5:8). What is presented in purple was added to these two verses, according to my King James Version Study Bible, stating that only a few of the later manuscripts contained these additions. Some Bibles use italics to indicate these changes and one version (NIV) omits these changes. Can we honestly accept any of these changes or alterations of God's word? These changes do alter our understanding of God's word, changing how Christ had originally inspired it to the many Bible writers. All this can be confirmed by using the Strong's Exhaustive Concordance and a good Interlinear Bible that contains the Hebrew and the Greek text. God is perfect; therefore His original word is also perfect and without question, consistent from Genesis to Revelation, from Old Testament to New Testament.
There are other translation adjustments, departing from what is consistent; this one is to help support replacing Sabbath worship to Sunday, "And upon the first (day) of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow, and continued his speech until midnight." (Acts 20:7). The word for "first" is Strong's #3391 mia can also be translated as "one" and the word for "week" Strong's #4521 sabbaton can also be translated as "sabbath". It is the translators decision to choose, but to be consistent with the rest of the Bible and to conform with the Fourth Commandment, it should logically read as, "And upon one of the Sabbaths...". Consider that the translation of the Bible to English wasn't done until well after the day of worship was changed to Sunday by the authority of man, but certainly not by a deity (Jehovah or Jesus). Viewing back all these changes that are inconsistent with God's perfect word, would it be obvious that Satan is behind these unauthorized changes?